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May 6, 2018 · Only (2) is good (except that there should probably be a comma after "later"). The problem with (1) is that "After 5 days" would typically be followed by a reference to something that lasted for 5 days. For example "After 5 days of virtually non-stop heavy rain, we were able to enjoy some sunshine."
We can use after as an adverb, but afterwards is more common. When after is used, it is usually as part of an adverb phrase: They lived happily ever after. (means ‘for ever’) She had an operation on her leg and afterwards was unable to walk for at least a month.
Leap year is 366 days. Quarter is 3 months and one fourth of a year. Archaic sennight (sevennight) was just another word for week, as well as hebdomad (more facetious than archaic). Quarantine is 40 days, though limited in its usage. Meteorologists may call 5 days a pentad.
You drop the plural from the word "days" . More examples: " I am 34 years old " or "I am a 34-year-old person". "The drive will be 40 minutes" or "it is a 40-minute drive". ‘ {number}- {noun}’ e.g. ‘5-day’, as an adjective, is never used in the plural, as far as i know.
Jun 12, 2020 · they all work! "5 days later" would be used in specific context though. for example, "I'm going to the London and I will meet you after 5 days". It only works when you have a plan in place (in this case - London), before you plan to meet in the 5 days.
Mar 4, 2024 · The difference is that "within 6 days" is a clear and logical statement which means "at some point in time between now and 6 days from now", while "within 5 to 6 days" is an ambiguous statement with no single clear definition: it could be a sloppy way of saying "within 6 days", or it could be trying to convey "between 5 and 6 days after", or it ...
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Jun 18, 2017 · I have heard about the usage of "be" in specific situations like 2 days, 5 dollars,... For example: Two days ____ enough for us. Should I use "is" or "are"? I see both of them are appropriate.
