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Sep 23, 2017 · The Word, John says, was both “with God” (distinct from God the Father) and “was God” (fully God). The Word’s true deity is confirmed through his identification as the Creator of all things (John 1:3; cf. Gen. 1:1).
- Mark L. Strauss
Apr 26, 2023 · Many have pointed out that the way Jesus “sounds” in John is very different than the way he “sounds” in the Synoptics. One might argue that this is proof of homiletical embroidery. However, it is possible the phrases might be a true reflection of Jesus having a multifaceted personality and communication style.
- Neither Jesus Nor Peter Spoke Greek.
- Agapao and Phileo Don’T Fit Neatly Into Airtight and Separate Compartments.
- Why Did John Use Agapao and Phileo When He Wrote The Passage?
Neither Jesus nor Peter spoke Greek. Let me qualify this statement. Because Palestine was a multi-ethnic, multi-racial, multi-cultural (are those enough “multi’s?”) occupied province of the Roman Empire, many languages were spoken, but the chief languages would have been: So, when Jesus and His disciples spoke together, even after the Resurrection,...
The words agapao and phileodon’t fit neatly into airtight and separate compartments. As I mentioned above, the standard assumption is that: If we can prove those words don’t “always” stay put in their presumed pigeonholes—indeed, if we can prove that the words can sometimes be used interchangeably—then the “heart” goes right out of this unfounded i...
Why, then, did John use agapao and phileo when he wrote the passage? Ah, now that is the question—not “what did Jesus mean by employing two different Greek words?”—something we have seen the Aramaic-speaking Jesus didn’t do; but “why did John, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit when writing the Gospel, employ agapao and phileo in such a way?”...
John starts his Gospel with the words, In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1). John uses ‘the Word’ to refer to Jesus, showing that...
Sep 15, 2014 · Those who dig into the Greek text of John 21 quickly discover that John uses two different words for “love.” Jesus’ first two questions use the word agape. Jesus’ third question and all three of Peter’s responses use the word philia. “Do you love (agape) me?” “Yes, Lord, you know that I love (philia) you.” “Do you love (agape) me?”
Oct 20, 2022 · In the dialog between Peter and Jesus (John 21:15–17), two different words for “love” are used in the original Greek text — “ἀγαπάω” (agape) and “φιλέω” (phileo). Do these two Greek words...
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Apr 30, 2019 · Vineyard scholar Kenny Burchard vents his frustration at the common differentiation and highlights the interchangeable ways in which John uses the two verbs. He points out that John uses the agape word-group (in various forms) about 37 times (including Jn. 3:16, 3:19, 3:35, 8:42, 10:17, 11:5, 12:43, 13:1, 13:1, 13:23, 13:34, 14:15, 14:21, 14:23 ...
